Is a wife considered divorced due to the phrase "Yes, I intended divorce upon the fulfillment of the condition," which was written in the context of a question about the intention of divorce, knowing that the speaker paused for a moment after the word "Yes" and intended to complete the sentence with something that would avoid divorce? And is the phrase "I have resolved that I shall reside separately from you and you shall reside separately from me" considered a divorce if it was not intended to mean a lawful separation, but rather came about due to confusion and hesitation regarding the ruling of divorce resulting from the previous phrase?

It is thought that the questioner has obsessive thoughts about divorce occurring, and it is advised to disregard them. He has conditioned his wife's divorce on engaging in masturbation and has not yet broken his oath. The phrases he uttered are not considered a divorce. If he engages in masturbation, he will break his oath and divorce will occur, according to the majority of scholars, in contrast to Ibn Taymiyyah, who holds that an expiation for an oath is required. Divorce does not occur with the statement "I have resolved to live separately from you and you live separately from me" without the intention of divorce. This phrase is among the allusions, and divorce does not occur with it except with intention.