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The question

What is the ruling on someone who says, "If I marry a woman and she does such-and-such, then each of us will go our separate ways, and we will not live together for another moment," when he is not yet married?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The correct view is that divorce is not valid before marriage. Therefore, the utterance made by the aforementioned man has no effect, whether he intended divorce by it or not, because divorce can only occur after marriage. We warn against obsessive thoughts (waswas) in this matter and others.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
138000
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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