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The question

Does divorce take effect if it is conditioned upon several matters, then some questions are answered after a period of time, after swearing by divorce not to answer them, knowing that the marital life has improved?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If you made your wife's divorce contingent, or swore to divorce her, while in a state of extreme anger that made you lose consciousness, then this is considered a "laghw" (idle speech) and does not result in divorce or require expiation.

However, if the anger did not make you lose awareness and you violated the first and second oaths, then the states that two divorces have occurred. You can take your wife back before her ' (waiting period) expires, either by verbal declaration or by intercourse. If you had intercourse with her after the divorce and before the 'iddah expired, then she has returned to your marital bond.

This is the view of the majority of scholars. As for the view of Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah, if you did not intend to effect a divorce, but rather intended to emphasize or threaten, then no divorce occurs; instead, you are required to pay the expiation for an oath.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
151320
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy