Is a wife allowed to refrain from showing activity and responsiveness to her husband during intercourse, as a means of making him aware of his shortcomings in foreplay, while still enabling him to have her, and would she be sinful for doing so?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
A wife is obligated to do what her husband is accustomed to from her in terms of enjoyment if his complete enjoyment depends on it. This includes washing any of her organs that have become impure and doing what he asks for and desires, from what the husband is accustomed to from her, as long as that is not disliked (). Some scholars have affirmed the obligation of raising the thighs and moving, while others have restricted it to intercourse or states of illness and old age.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/62877
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 62877
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy