Is a wife forbidden to her husband if she closes her office door, given that the husband swore to forbid his wife to him if she closes the door, and his intention was to threaten, not to divorce, and that closing the door leads to inconveniencing colleagues at work?
The preponderant ruling concerning the oath of prohibiting one's wife depends on the husband's intention. If he intended divorce, it is a divorce. If he intended ẓihār (a pre-Islamic form of divorce by likening one's wife to an unmarriageable relative), it is ẓihār. If he intended an oath or did not intend anything specific, then it is an oath. If the husband did not intend divorce or ẓihār, then if he breaks his oath, he must offer expiation for an oath (kaffārat yamīn). The occurrence of breaking the oath depends on his intention; if he intended to tie the prohibition to the closure absolutely, he breaks the oath in all cases. If he intended a specific situation, he does not break the oath otherwise. It is necessary to communicate with the husband and explain that swearing to prohibit one's wife is impermissible, and its ruling depends on his intention. It is also necessary to point out the impermissibility of a woman being in khalwa (private seclusion) with a man who is neither her husband nor a maḥram (unmarriageable kin). If her work exposes her to this, she is not permitted to remain in it.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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