Why is the house attributed to women in the noble verse: "Do not expel them from their homes," even though it belongs to men?

There is no contradiction between a man owning the house and attributing it to the woman, for not every attribution implies ownership, as in His Almighty's saying: "And abide in your houses," and "And remember what is recited in your houses," for it is an attribution of dwelling and permanence in the dwelling, not an attribution of ownership. And attributing houses to the feminine pronoun in His Almighty's saying: "Do not expel them from their houses" is an indication of their right to remain therein for the duration of the 'iddah (waiting period), which is ownership of usufruct, not of the property itself, and because the stay of divorced women in the houses is a continuation of the marital state, where the woman was the lady of the house.