Is what is meant in the noble verse: "Vile women are for vile men, and vile men are for vile women, and good women are for good men, and good men are for good women" (24:26) speech or women? And if women are meant, does a person's being afflicted with a vile spouse mean that he/she is also vile, even though Prophets of God were afflicted with such?

The interpretation of the verse "Impure women are for impure men" has two main perspectives: either "impure women" refers to impure words or to women. If it refers to women, the intended meaning is that generally, an impure person inclines towards an impure one, and a good person towards a good one, with the possibility of exceptions. Lot and Pharaoh's wife are exceptions to this; Lot was righteous, and Pharaoh's wife was a believer. The impurity of Lot's wife was due to her disbelief, not her fornication. Pharaoh's wife's name is Asiya bint Muzahim, and Sarah is Abraham's wife.