Does the statement "Islamic Sharia governs politics just as it governs marriage and divorce" affect the marital bond? And is the phrase "Islam is a way of life and a comprehensive system that regulates the affairs of this world and the hereafter, and that the Sharia of God must be applied" considered among the allusions to divorce? And does the thought that crossed one's mind, "We don't need you anymore," after saying "Her sister agreed to open the apartment," affect the marital bond?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Divorce does not occur except through an explicit verbal pronouncement indicating it, or through an implicit statement accompanied by intention. It does not occur merely by the word passing over the tongue without intent, such as in storytelling, teaching, a slip of the tongue, an error, or inner speech. Therefore, what is mentioned in the question does not constitute a divorce. It is advised to disregard these intrusive thoughts because they originate from Satan.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/119644
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 119644
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy