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The question

Are the subsequent two divorces counted if a man divorces his wife with whom he has consummated the marriage after he had divorced her before consummation and thought that he could take her back, so he took her back and then consummated the marriage with her?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a man divorces his wife with a single pronouncement before consummation or (private seclusion), she becomes irrevocably separated from him, and she is not lawful for him again except through a new marriage contract. He has no right of rajʿa (restitution) over her due to the absence of an ʿidda (waiting period). This is by scholarly consensus.

If he then has intercourse with her after this divorce, his act is considered zina (unlawful sexual intercourse), and separation between them is immediately incumbent. The subsequent two divorce pronouncements are not taken into consideration. Nevertheless, he is not subjected to the hadd punishment due to (doubt), as he believed her to be lawful for him. However, he is sinful for his negligence in seeking knowledge, and he must repent. The children who may result from this intercourse are attributed to him and inherit from him by the consensus of Muslims, even if the marriage was invalid in reality.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
41000
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy