Are the two divorces that the man pronounced to his wife after the first divorce, which was not followed by a new marriage contract, counted, or are they not counted on the basis that she is no longer his wife?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If a man divorces his wife before consummating the marriage, she becomes irrevocably separated from him by a minor, irrevocable divorce (baynunah sughra). She is not lawful for him again unless they enter into a new marriage contract with a new mahr (dowry). Based on this, the second and third divorces do not count as they do not take effect, because the woman has become a stranger to him. He is permitted to marry her again with a new contract and a new mahr, and he will still have two divorce pronouncements remaining.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/83386
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 83386
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy