Does a husband's talk about his feelings before marriage, if said to please his wife and not truly meant, constitute a hint of divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Divorce only occurs with an explicit pronouncement, or an ambiguous statement (kinayah) coupled with the intention of effecting divorce. As for words that do not carry the meaning of divorce, divorce does not occur by them. Therefore, none of what you mentioned effects a divorce; rather, these are [mere] whisperings [from Satan] that must be disregarded.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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