Does divorce take effect and is expiation obligatory for someone who denied his marriage with the intention of arousing the curiosity of the caller, and not with the intention of divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The summary of the answer is that the jurists have stipulated that if someone is asked, "Do you have a wife?" and he replies, "No," then divorce does not occur by that, unless he intended to initiate divorce with his utterance, in which case it does occur. Some of them said that it does not occur at all, whether he intended divorce or not, but this opinion is less preferred. If there is no need for lying, then one should not resort to it.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/34015
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 34015
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy