Back to search
The question

Does divorce take effect and is expiation obligatory for someone who denied his marriage with the intention of arousing the curiosity of the caller, and not with the intention of divorce?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The summary of the answer is that the jurists have stipulated that if someone is asked, "Do you have a wife?" and he replies, "No," then divorce does not occur by that, unless he intended to initiate divorce with his utterance, in which case it does occur. Some of them said that it does not occur at all, whether he intended divorce or not, but this opinion is less preferred. If there is no need for lying, then one should not resort to it.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
34015
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy