Does the wife's remaining in her husband's عصمة (bond of marriage) depend on her not going to a specific place, if he has declared that if she leaves his عصمة (bond of marriage), she is free to do as she pleases, and he now wants her to go to that place?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
This statement from your husband is not a declaration of divorce; rather, it is a prohibition for you from going to that place. If you go, you would be disobeying your husband, but no divorce occurs with this wording. If your husband had previously given you permission to go, then there is no disobedience and no divorce results from it.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 190078
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