Has a divorce actually occurred between the spouses, and what is the ruling on that in the Hanafi school of thought, knowing that the husband uttered the divorce then wrote to his wife, "You are free to go whenever you wish," and told her, "From now on, you are free from my side"?
Firstly: Divorce occurs through explicit verbal utterance, writing, and implicit verbal utterance with the intention of divorce.
Secondly: If the husband pronounces an explicit divorce and then writes another divorce during the (waiting period) without reconciliation, the second divorce occurs according to the majority of jurists. However, others (such as Ibn Taymiyyah and Ibn Uthaymeen) hold that it does not occur except after a new marriage contract or reconciliation.
Thirdly: If the husband says "You are free" when handing over the paper, and he intended it to confirm what was in the paper, then nothing occurs. But if he intended a new divorce, it occurs according to the majority of jurists, and it does not occur according to Ibn Taymiyyah and those who agreed with him.
The relied-upon here is the opinion of Sheikh al-Islam, and accordingly, writing divorce and pronouncing it during the iddah without reconciliation does not result in another divorce in addition to the first one.
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