Is it permissible for a husband to marry with the intention of divorcing his wife so that she may marry another man after his death, and does his saying so affect the validity of the contract if nothing of this is mentioned therein, knowing that she is in a dilemma?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
A man's marriage with the intention of separating from his wife after a period, without stipulating this in the contract, is valid according to the majority of scholars. It is not a temporary marriage ( mut'ah). A temporary marriage is only that which occurs with the aforementioned condition. Al-Awza'i disagreed, deeming it a temporary marriage. Imam Malik said, "This is not from the manners of people."
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/134042
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 134042
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- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Read the full answer on Ftawy