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The question

What is the ruling on a Muslim's marriage contract if he intends to divorce his wife upon the completion of his work in the West, regardless of whether his fiancée is aware of this intention or not?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A man's marriage with the intention of eventually leaving the woman can be divided into three categories:

First, if a time limit is stipulated in the contract, this is a temporary marriage ( mut'ah), which is invalid by scholarly consensus.

Second, if no such condition is stipulated in the contract, but the girl and her family are aware of his intention and agree to it. There is nothing wrong with this, as he might develop a liking for her and continue the marriage.

Third, if no such condition is stipulated in the contract, and the girl and her family are unaware. This is not appropriate due to the deception and fraud involved. However, most scholars hold that such a marriage is permissible and valid.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
43800
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy