Is the husband sinful and mistaken if his wife files for divorce due to harm, claiming pain, after 15 months of marriage without consummation, despite his gentle attempts and the doctor's advice to her to accept the relationship, and his provision of all means for a dignified life?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If divorce for a need is permissible, then divorcing a wife due to her refusal of conjugal relations is permissible and entails no sin, whether she has an excuse or not. As for the rights resulting from the divorce, these are referred to the competent court.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 180933
- Imported
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