What is the ruling on someone who made his wife's divorce and her being unlawful to him contingent upon committing indecency and its preliminaries, in the past or the future, saying: "If I have committed any act (and he specified indecency and its preliminaries) since our marriage or if I commit it in the future, then you are divorced from me, and unlawful to me, and everything between us is zina"? And what are the consequences of his statement, and how should he deal with her thereafter?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
"It was obligatory to have a good opinion of the wife and not accuse her without evidence, and to avoid slandering her, as it is among the grave sins. The aforementioned oath is a conditional divorce that takes effect if the wife did any of that, whether in the past or the future."
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 156832
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