Back to search
The question

Is it permissible for a husband to be just in allotting nights and spending without being just in treatment and equality between wives? And is it permissible for a man to forsake his wife without a just cause? And is a wife sinful if she seeks divorce due to the severe psychological harm she has suffered from her husband marrying another?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The ruling on justice between wives has preceded: the husband must be just between his wives in good companionship and kind treatment, based on the Almighty's saying: "So do not incline completely [toward one]" (Quran 4:129). The required justice is in actions and words, not in the inclinations of the heart. Deserting a disobedient wife is by refraining from cohabitation and intercourse with her, not by deserting her outside the home. It is not permissible for a husband to spend the night with one of his wives during another's turn, unless she locks her door against him and he is unable to spend the night in her room. It is permissible to seek a divorce out of necessity, such as a woman being harmed by remaining with her husband, but not merely because he married another, provided he is just.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
74396
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy