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The question

Does the husband have the right to demand a portion of his working wife's salary or to split household expenses equally, on the grounds that she goes out to work and may potentially fall short in her domestic duties, even though she fulfills all her household responsibilities and refuses the idea of hiring a maid?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the wife did not stipulate to her husband that she would work before the marriage contract, then he has the right to prevent her if he is providing for her expenses. He also has the right to stipulate a portion of her salary in exchange for allowing her to work. The general principle is that household service is incumbent upon the wife, while external service is incumbent upon the husband. If the wife is accustomed to having servants, then the husband must provide a servant for her. The husband is not obligated to perform household chores with his wife, but his assistance is a sign of his good character. It is advised to live together honorably and for the spouses to cooperate.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
134801
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy