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The question

Does a divorce occur and count as one pronouncement of divorce, and what is the ruling on the money stipulated for the husband in return for the divorce, if the husband agreed to the divorce and gave her the money, but did not utter the words of divorce?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Divorce does not take effect except by the husband's pronouncement, or by his writing it with the intention (of divorce), or by a judge's ruling or the ruling of his deputy. If the husband refrains from pronouncing it, the matter is referred to the Islamic Center, which acts as the judge in non-Muslim countries, and the divorce takes effect by its ruling after studying the case. Verbal consent or actions alone are not sufficient to effect a divorce. As for the money the husband paid to the wife, if it was with his consent or by a ruling from the Islamic Center (as maintenance or a compensatory gift), there is no harm in her taking it; otherwise, it is not permissible. The wife's remaining in the home is an obligation due to the husband's right and is not compensated.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
84509
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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