Does a divorce take place and count as one pronouncement before Allah if a divorce document is issued for the second wife, without uttering the words of divorce, intending it, or receiving anything in return, with the aim of stopping harm from the first wife?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If you did not utter the divorce of your wife, nor did you write it with the intention of effecting it, then the divorce has not occurred. However, your continued presence with her despite the issuance of her divorce document is a serious matter. If you wish to keep her, then have witnesses attest that she is still your wife and that what was issued was merely a gesture of goodwill and an avoidance of problems, and not a divorce, in order to preserve rights and prevent corruption.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/131236
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 131236
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy