Must I perform Umrah with the money I intended to allocate for it and for which I sold an appliance, or is it permissible for me to use the amount for engagement and marriage expenses? And will I be sinful if I do not perform Umrah after this intention?

Scholars have differed regarding the ruling on 'Umrah (definition), and many have favored its immediate obligation, once in a lifetime, similar to Hajj, which is the fatwa (definition) we adopt. Based on this, if you do not fear falling into the unlawful for yourself, then you should prioritize 'Umrah and postpone marriage. However, if you yearn for marriage and fear falling into the unlawful, and your finances are insufficient for both 'Umrah and marriage, then you must prioritize marriage and postpone 'Umrah until you find a way to it, because it is considered a necessary expense, and there is no sin upon you if you act on this basis. As for deliberately violating this ruling after knowing it, you will be sinful for it. And whatever you prioritize from the two in violation of the Shari'ah is considered Islamically valid from the perspective of "disobeyed and valid."