Is not what is required of women—such as covering their bodies, prohibition of perfume, and the condition of a mahram for travel—considered a suppression of their freedom, given that it is justified by the arousal of men, while men are permitted what is forbidden to women?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
It is incorrect to equate a man's temptation by a woman with her temptation by him. This is evident in the rulings concerning 'awrah (intimate parts), , perfume, and travel. These rulings are specific to women, not men, in order to protect them and out of consideration for the difference in their innate natures. The general principle is equality between them in rulings, except where the evidence specifies otherwise, such as the Prophet's (peace and blessings be upon him) saying: "Indeed, women are the twin halves of men."
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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