Is it permissible to give money to a merchant for him to invest it through Murabaha (cost-plus-profit sale), such that the merchant buys goods on behalf of the capital owner, and then the merchant buys them from him for a known profit, without being obligated to do so? And does the ruling differ if the capital owner is present at the time of purchase, or relies on pictures, or authorizes the merchant to purchase without referring back to him?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The issue of an agent authorizing the buyer to take possession of an item, and then selling it to him at a known profit, is a matter of scholarly disagreement. Most scholars prohibit it. Some scholars permit it if it is not a trick to circumvent usury (riba). It is advisable to buy the goods yourself or to authorize someone other than the buyer to purchase them, then take possession of them, and then sell them to him.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/173868
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- 173868
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