Is anything incurred upon her for taking from her nails and hair after the first intention of Ihram and before the second Ihram, and is the first or the second intention of Ihram counted?

"Ihram (definition) before the Miqat (definition) is valid, and the Ihram of the aforementioned woman is the one considered, while the second Ihram is void. She owes a fidyah (definition) (expiatory sacrifice) for cutting her hair and nails while in the state of Ihram. Therefore, a fidyah is required for each category of prohibitions, which is the more cautious opinion according to most jurists, as it falls under the category of causing damage. Some scholars, however, are of the view that there is nothing due from someone who commits prohibitions out of forgetfulness or ignorance."