How can one reconcile the statement that semen (mani) is pure while prostatic fluid (madhy) is impure, given that semen is a mixture of both semen and prostatic fluid? Is there a narration from Imam Ahmad regarding the purity of prostatic fluid, and is it permissible to follow it if the questioner deems it more correct?

The jurists differed regarding the purity and impurity of semen. As for pre-seminal fluid (madhiy), it is impure according to the general consensus of scholars. The questioner's difficulty in differentiating between them, based on the argument that semen is a mixture of both, is incorrect, and no one has stated such a thing. Rather, they both issue from a single gland, and pre-seminal fluid is the precursor to semen. It is permissible to adopt the view that pre-seminal fluid is pure if its correctness becomes evident, and it is not a matter of mere desire or seeking out dispensations.