Back to search
The question

Is semen impure because it is mixed with pre-seminal fluid (madhy)?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It was previously explained that the preponderant opinion is the purity of semen (mani) and the impurity of prostatic fluid (). If semen is discharged after prostatic fluid and becomes contaminated by it, then the garment must be sprinkled with water, based on the of Sahl ibn Hunayf: "It is sufficient for you to take a handful of water and sprinkle it on your garment where you think it has been affected."

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
120609
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy