What is the ruling on semen discharged after pre-seminal fluid, and is it considered impure due to its mixing with pre-seminal fluid, and do the man and his wife become impure by it?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If semen mixes with (pre-seminal fluid), and the latter is impure, then the semen also becomes impure, prioritizing the aspect of impurity. In this case, all of it becomes forbidden if it is not clearly distinguishable.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/74082
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 74082
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy