Is semen considered impure if it is discharged onto the glans after the pre-seminal fluid has dried, without performing ritual washing (istinja') or wiping (istijmar)?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Semen is pure, while prostatic fluid () is impure. Semen becomes impure if it mixes with prostatic fluid while both are wet, or if one of them is wet. Impurity is not transferred by mere doubt, because the original state is purity.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/160670
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 160670
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy