How did some scholars deduce that ritual purity is not a prerequisite for the prostration of recitation (Sujud al-Tilawah), based on the prostration of Muslims and polytheists when the Prophet (peace be upon him) recited Surat An-Najm, even though the story is Makkan and it is possible that this was specific to prayer, or does the omission of detailed inquiry in a context of probability equate to a general statement?

The majority of scholars hold that purity is a condition for the prostration of recitation (Sujud (definition) al-Tilawah). However, some scholars, such as Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah, the Permanent Committee for Scholarly Research and Ifta', Ibn Baz, and Ibn Uthaymeen, are of the view that purity is not a condition for it. They base their argument on the fact that the hadiths concerning the prostration of recitation do not indicate that purity is a condition; rather, they are closer to indicating the opposite. They cite as evidence the prostration of thehi polytheists with the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, despite their not being in a state of purity. Furthermore, the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, did not stipulate purity for those who prostrated with him. Nevertheless, it is preferable for a Muslim to prostrate in a state of purity.