Back to search
The question

Is a husband's striking of his stepdaughter, leading to her death without the intent to kill, considered intentional killing, and what must he do?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Striking one's stepdaughter is forbidden, and it is an act of injustice and aggression. If it leads to death, its prohibition is even more severe. It is not possible to determine whether the killing was intentional or not without knowing the method of striking. However, intentional killing is defined as striking in a manner that is highly likely to cause death, with the intent to do so. Scholars have differed on the definition of intentional killing. The Maliki, Shafi'i, and Hanbali schools, as well as Abu Yusuf and Muhammad from the Hanafi school, hold that it is striking with an object that cuts or wounds, or with an object that is highly likely to cause death. Abu Hanifa, on the other hand, held that it is intentionally striking the victim with a tool that dismembers. Intentional killing necessitates retribution (qisas), incurs sin, and deprives the killer of inheritance. The matter must be brought before the court for consideration, as the rights of individuals are involved in killing, whether intentional or otherwise.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
183020
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy