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The question

Are the two divorces that occurred during menstruation and postpartum valid, and is the husband considered to have committed adultery during the two-year period following the second divorce if his wife was not divorced according to Sharia?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Previously, 68893 affirmed the validity and continuation of the questioner's marriage and stated that interference in it is impermissible. As for his current question, inviting people to Allah and advising Muslims are righteous deeds, but it is not permissible to achieve them through forbidden means. Art that includes music or impermissible mixing is not allowed to be practiced as a means for any work. Therefore, we advise the questioner to repent to Allah, abandon this sin, regret it, and not return to it in the future, if he has practiced or called for the practice of the aforementioned forbidden acts.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
69218
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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