What is the ruling regarding a man's statement to his wife: "I relinquish my right to intimacy (intercourse)," if his intention is extreme anger and not divorce?
If waiving the right to conjugal relations is not intended to declare the wife unlawful, or divorce her, or pronounce ẓihār against her, then nothing results from it. However, if the intention is to abstain from conjugal relations with her and declare intercourse with her unlawful, this is considered an act of making lawful things unlawful, and its ruling is that of an oath, thus requiring an expiation for breaking an oath (kaffārat yamīn). If the intention is divorce, then it is a divorce. If the intention is ẓihār, then it is ẓihār. One must be wary of obsessive doubt (waswasah), for the divorce of an obsessively doubtful person does not take effect unless divorce was actually intended.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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