To what extent is the statement true that the hadith mentioned in Sahih Muslim on the authority of Ibn Abbas, which indicates that three divorces were considered a single divorce during the time of the Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him), Abu Bakr, and the early part of Umar’s caliphate, has a continuation in Al-Nasa’i’s narration from Ibn Abbas himself stating that this was "before consummation"?

This issue is subject to scholarly disagreement. Triple divorce before consummation falls into two categories:

1. If it occurs with a single utterance (e.g., "You are thrice divorced"): It counts as three divorces, according to the consensus of the four madhhabs.

2. If it occurs with successive utterances (e.g., "You are divorced, you are divorced, you are divorced"): Hanafis: The first divorce takes effect, while the second and third do not find a valid object. Malikis: They differentiate between successive utterances, which count as three, and non-successive ones, which count as only one. Shafi'is: The divorce takes effect as pronounced by the divorcer, whether combined in a single utterance or separated. Hanbalis: If pronounced with a single utterance or words implying simultaneity (e.g., "and divorced and divorced"), it counts as three. If separated, the woman becomes irrevocably divorced with the first utterance.

Regarding Ibn Abbas's statement that triple divorce counted as one during the time of the Prophet and Abu Bakr, Al-Baji interpreted it to mean that they would issue a single divorce instead of three, and Umar later enforced it upon them.

Ibn Taymiyyah and those who followed him differed on this, stating that a triple divorce pronounced with a single utterance counts as one divorce.

The fatwa acted upon is that of the majority of scholars.