Does a divorce occur if the husband says, "Anti taluq" instead of "Anti taliq" if he did not intend divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The gist of the answer is: If the speaker's intention to divorce his wife is clear, and the wording matches his intention, then the divorce is valid by the consensus of scholars. However, if there was no intention, then jurists differ on its ruling. Some consider the wording to be explicit and not in need of intention, while others view it as an absolute metaphorical expression that requires intention.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/83924
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 83924
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy