Does a divorce occur if the husband says, "Anti taluq" instead of "Anti taliq" if he did not intend divorce?

The gist of the answer is: If the speaker's intention to divorce his wife is clear, and the wording matches his intention, then the divorce is valid by the consensus of scholars. However, if there was no intention, then jurists differ on its ruling. Some consider the wording to be explicit and not in need of intention, while others view it as an absolute metaphorical expression that requires intention.