What is the ruling on a husband saying to his wife in colloquial Arabic, "Anti Talik," intending to say, "Anti Talik" (You are divorced), and does a divorce occur thereby if he did not intend to effect it?

If the questioner is from a people who pronounce the letter "ق" (qaf) as "ك" (kaf) in the word for divorce, and this pronunciation is explicit for divorce in their dialect, then his saying to his wife: "أنتِ طالك" (anti talik) is an explicit divorce and takes effect even if he did not intend it. It is stated in "Ghayat Talkhis al-Murad min Fatawa Ibn Ziyad al-Shafi'i" that divorce takes effect if the speaker's language involves pronouncing "ط" (ta) as "ت" (ta') or "د" (dal), and "ق" (qaf) as "ك" (kaf).