Does divorce occur by saying "ṭāleʾ" if the intention is divorce, and is intention a condition in this case?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
A husband's statement to his wife, "أنتِ طالئ" (anti tali'), is considered an explicit divorce for those whose language replaces the letter 'qaf' with a hamza. Explicit divorce does not require an intention. As for someone whose language is not like this, this utterance is considered a metaphorical expression (kinayah), and divorce occurs if the husband intended it, but it does not occur if he did not intend it.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/64749
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 64749
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy