Does divorce occur by saying "ṭāleʾ" if the intention is divorce, and is intention a condition in this case?

A husband's statement to his wife, "أنتِ طالئ" (anti tali'), is considered an explicit divorce for those whose language replaces the letter 'qaf' with a hamza. Explicit divorce does not require an intention. As for someone whose language is not like this, this utterance is considered a metaphorical expression (kinayah), and divorce occurs if the husband intended it, but it does not occur if he did not intend it.