What is the Shar’i (Islamic legal) opinion regarding someone who uses the noble verse: “and not display of their adornment except what is apparent of it” as an argument that the hijab is not obligatory, on the premise that “what is apparent of it” is unrestricted and refers to the boundaries between modesty and indecency according to each society, environment, and time period, and that the texts of the Sunnah and the actions of the female Companions are applications of this principle within a specific environment, time, and society, and are not absolute or general, and that the Quranic text is the general one by its reference to custom and its not specifying “what is apparent of it”?

The scholars have agreed on the obligation of the hijab, with the exception of the face and hands, but they differed on the obligation of covering them. The society of the Companions understood from the verse: "and to draw their veils over their bosoms" the obligation of covering the face, as is clear from the actions of Aisha, may Allah be pleased with her, and the women of the Muhajirat, and from the eagerness of the female Companions to cover their faces during Hajj. Ibn Ruslan transmitted the consensus of Muslims on prohibiting women from going out with uncovered faces, and Ibn Hajar mentioned that the custom of women, ancient and modern, is to cover their faces from non-mahram men.