Is taking the view of the majority – that divorce pronounced falsely does not religiously take effect – considered piety, and does it entail hardship, given the questioner's ignorance of divorce taking effect in this manner?

The common person is obligated to ask scholars, according to the Almighty's saying: "So ask the people of the message if you do not know." If you are a common person, you cannot weigh between opinions. It is sufficient for you to act upon what you have been given as a fatwa, and you are not required to research beyond that.

The meaning of the hadith: "There are three things, serious when serious, and serious when in jest..." has been previously explained. It pertains to the one who initiates a divorce. As for the one who admits to divorce, it falls under the category of reporting, and reporting can be true or false. This is why we have favored the occurrence of his divorce outwardly, not inwardly.

We advise you not to repeat the question about this issue, as this leads to confusion, disturbance, and falling into obsessive thoughts.