What is the ruling on a homosexual man marrying while concealing the matter from his wife and her family, despite his lack of sexual desire towards women? Does the hadith: "Whoever among you can afford to marry, let him marry" include this case? And does "al-ba'ah" (affordability/ability) mean the ability to have intercourse and desire for the opposite sex?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
A homosexual person should realize the seriousness of their condition and strive to cure it. Marriage can be one of the greatest means of treatment if it is intended to keep oneself chaste and is sincere with Allah. They are not required to inform the wife or her family of their homosexuality or lack of desire for women, unless this prevents them from fulfilling their wife's right to enjoyment. If the lack of desire means sexual impotence, then it must be disclosed, because these matters prevent the enjoyment intended by marriage.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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