Is a husband who can only consummate the marriage through foreplay that is displeasing to his wife considered to be impotent (عنين), and is a judicial separation permissible between them? And is the wife entitled to seek separation due to harm in this case?

The husband's situation is one of two: Either the matters upon which his intercourse with his wife depends are forbidden and harmful to her, in which case obedience to him is not permissible, and she has the right to refer her case to the judiciary due to his inability to perform intercourse. Or the matters he requests are neither forbidden nor harmful, in which case she must obey him in what he commands, provided it leads to his erection and pleasure, as long as it does not result in harm or a violation of Sharia. It is advisable to consult Sharia courts regarding these matters.