Does talaq occur by saying "you are divorced" in a message to the wife, then repeating it twice without addressing her, then imagining her presence and saying it again?

Divorcing one's wife via a text message, if it is an implicit divorce (kinayah), takes effect if the husband intended it; otherwise, it does not. The same applies to uttering the word "divorced" (taliq) without attributing it to the wife: if he did not intend divorce, then nothing is incumbent upon him. But if he intended it, and intended two divorces, then two are binding. If he intended one, then one. If the husband utters the word "divorced" once after three previous divorces, the divorce does not take effect because it does not have a valid subject (mahall). However, if it is less than three divorces and the husband intended it, it takes effect. Divorce only takes effect if the wife is still under the marital bond. The divorce of an angry person takes effect if he is aware of what he is saying.