Is the husband considered sinful, according to Sharia, for refraining from financially supporting his four children after divorcing their mother, who admitted to her infidelity, given his knowledge that the British state provides her with sufficient funds for the children's livelihood, and her refusal to receive any money sent by him, even if sent through an intermediary from her relatives, and her incitement of the children to boycott him? And what should he do if he is found sinful?

The father has a greater right to custody when the mother travels to relocate, and the mother has no right to custody if she is immoral. The father must strive to gain custody of his children and will be sinful if he falls short in this, unless he is unable.

The father must provide for his children if they do not have sufficient wealth. If government funds suffice for them, then there is no blame upon him for not sending maintenance, especially if he knows it will not reach them.

The father must strive to gather his children and protect them for their spiritual upbringing. If he is unable, then "Allah does not burden a soul beyond its capacity."

The mother has no right to refuse the father's maintenance, nor to prevent the father's visit or his contact with his children, because that is a severing of family ties and an aiding of filial disobedience, both of which are major sins.