Does divorce take effect merely by the spouses signing it in court, and what is the value of going to court in such a situation?

A husband's mere signature on a divorce paper does not constitute a divorce unless he intended it. If a husband has sexual intercourse with his irrevocably divorced wife (talaq (definition) raj'i) during her 'iddah (definition) (waiting period), this is considered a valid return (raj'ah), and the wife's consent is not required for it. If the 'iddah ends without a return, the wife becomes irrevocably divorced with a minor separation (baynunah sughra), and he cannot remarry her except with a new contract. It is not permissible to resort to man-made courts except in extreme necessity, and their rulings are invalid. However, a divorce occurs if the husband himself pronounces it.