Is it considered a divorce if a husband says to his wife, "Go with your mother," or says to her mother, "Take her," and then says to his own mother, "I no longer desire her," and is it permissible to take the wife back after these statements?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The phrase "Go to your mother" is not an explicit pronouncement of divorce. It lacks intent, and intent is not established in this scenario due to the presence of doubt. Therefore, no divorce takes place. The husband's statement, "I intended to divorce her later," does not constitute a divorce. Thus, the wife is still his wife.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/66666
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 66666
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy