Is an 'iddah period obligatory for a woman who was divorced after stating that there had been no marital relations or valid seclusion (sexual intimacy) between her and her husband throughout the entire marriage?

If it is proven that the husband has molested his children, the wife has the right to seek a divorce to protect her children. This is considered clear harm that permits divorce. As for the waiting period (iddah), it becomes obligatory upon a valid privacy (khulwah shar'iyyah), even if no intercourse occurred. Otherwise, there is no waiting period for her, based on Allah's saying: "O you who have believed, when you marry believing women and then divorce them before you have touched them, then there is not for you any waiting period to count concerning them. So provide for them and give them an elegant release." (Al-Ahzab: 49).