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What kind of harm permits a wife to refuse her husband's advances without the angels cursing her, and is a man who abstains from intercourse with his wife without harm cursed, and what about a wife who despises her husband or whose husband compels her to actions that displease Allah?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

What was mentioned in the fatwa regarding the wife's obligation to respond to her husband in bed is a truth supported by religious texts, and it is for the benefit of both the wife and the family. If a woman does not satisfy her husband's needs, he may seek another path through unlawful means or by marrying another.

It is not incumbent upon the woman to respond to her husband if she is suffering harm. The acceptable harm is clear harm, such as being severely ill. However, if she dislikes intimacy with her husband, Allah has legislated Khul' (dissolution of marriage initiated by the wife) for her.

A man who refrains from fulfilling his wife's right to intimacy is sinful and unjust. A woman's right to intimacy is one of the greatest rights, and a man is rewarded for having relations with his family. He is also obligated to adorn himself for his wife.

If a husband commands his wife to commit something forbidden, she is not obligated to obey him, and she would be sinful if she obeys him.

The questioner's reliance on the verse: "There is no compulsion in religion" is incorrect. The verse speaks about not compelling someone to enter Islam, not about all types of compulsion. There is a compulsion that is obligatory by right.

If the wife is unwilling and cannot bear it, she has the option of Khul'. Islamic law encourages both spouses to be patient, and it is recommended for the husband to be patient with his wife if she is not psychologically prepared for intimacy.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

Read the full answer on Ftawy