Is he who believes that the expiation for spousal intercourse during the daytime in Ramadan is limited to fasting sixty consecutive days, without making up the day, considered an apostate from Islam due to his ignorance of the ruling on making up the day and the expiation? And is he required to renew his marriage contract?

The obligation to make up for the day on which intercourse occurred during the daytime in Ramadan (definition) is not something known to be an essential part of religion, and therefore, the questioner's ignorance of this issue is not considered apostasy and does not require renewing the marriage contract. Nevertheless, he must make up for every day his fast was invalidated in Ramadan, even if he was unaware of the obligation to do so, because ignorance of the obligation does not nullify the duty, though it does absolve him of sin. A Muslim must acquire understanding of his religion and learn what is necessary for the validity of his acts of worship.