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Does a divorce, pronounced by a husband to his wife on three separate occasions—with a long time gap between the first and second pronouncements, and then the third immediately following in a moment of anger while he could not see her—take effect, knowing that the judge in his country considered the first and second pronouncements as a single divorce?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

There is no comment on the judge's ruling, as it was issued based on the information he possessed. As for your oath of "three divorces while you were in a state of anger," if you did not know what you were saying and your mind was so overcome that you did not see your wife, then this is not considered a divorce, due to the Prophet's (peace be upon him) saying: "There is no divorce and no manumission in a state of closure (i.e., coercion or extreme anger)." We advise you not to rush into divorce. Based on the non-occurrence of the divorce, it has no effect on your marital life or your family.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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